EXAM

GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST ( GPAT) MODEL EXAM

 

         
GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST ( GPAT) MODEL EXAM
 
1)      What is the composition of B.C.G vaccines
a)      Living attenuated mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)      Expenmentally killed and freeze dried mycoloacterium tubercle
c)       Antibodies obtained from sera of tuberculosis patient
d)      All of these
2)      Gene therapy refers to the process of
a)      Identifying disease causing genes and activating them for therapeutic benifits
b)      Increasing the expression levels of the set of genes involved in a given disease in affected cells through sective modulating agents
c)       Transfer of new genetic material to the cells of an individual for therapeutic benefit
d)      Removal of the proteins corresponding to the disease causing genes from the cells of the affected mdividual  
3)      Who is the father of immundogy
a)      Edward jenner  
b)      Louis Pasteur   c) elie Metchnikoff    d) Robert Koch
4)      Vector used in recombinant DNA technology is
a)      Plasmids  
b)      Cosmid
c)       Bacteriophage
d)      All of these
5)      Polyacrylamide gel is used as material in which technique of immobilization
a)      Covalent binding  
b)      Adsorption
c)       Entrapment
d)      complenation
6)      Which type of reactor , aeration is generally accomplished in a separate vessel
a)      Fluidised bed
b)      Trickle bed
c)       Packed bed
d)      Stirred and air –driven reactors
7)      Humulin is
a)      Carbohydrate
b)      Protein
c)       Fat
d)      antibiotics
8)      which of the following virus is not used in gene therapy
a)      papillomavirus
b)      retrovirus
c)       adenovirus
d)      herpes simplex vinus
9)      Usually volatile oils are a mixture of
a)      Mono and sesquiterpenes
b)      Mono and diterpenes
c)       Sesquiterpens and diterpenses
d)      Mono and lower aliphatic compound
10)   Digitals purpurea is a cardiotonic drug belonging to the family
a)      Apocynaceae     b) lilliaceae    c) polygonaceae   d) scrophulariaceae
11)   In o – glycoside ,the sugar is combined with a phenolic hydroxyl function as in
a)      Aloin      b) sennosides    c) amygdalin      d) digitoxin
12)   The most common sugar in glycoside is
a)      Alpha – glucose    b) beta – D – glucose  c) alpha – L – glucose d) beta- L- glucose
13)   The taste of glycoside of gentinaceae is
a)      Sweet   b) salty    c) acrid    d) bitter
14)   Rutin is an example of
a)      Triterpene  glycoside    b) lactone glycoside
b)      Saponin glycoside          d) flavanoid glycoside
15)   Tinnevelly senna is obtained from
a)      cassia acutifolia        b) cassia angustifolia
b)      cassia auriculata      d) cassia obovata    
16)   The solid mass dissolved by boiling a decoction is called
a)      asava       b) aristha    c) lehya      d) none
17)   Triphla churna contains
a)      amla       b) bahda        c) harde      d) all of these
18)   Colophony contain about 90% of
a)      resins             b) fatty acid ester       c) resenes     d) resin alcohol
19)   motor disturbances are produced by
a)      neuroleptics      b) thymoleptics    c) analeptics
20)   which of the following in used as an immunosuppressant
a)      amantadine   b) cyclosporine    c) cycloserine
21)   which amphetamine analogue is a mood elevator
a)      phenelizine    b) LSD     c) MDMA
22)   allopurinol can inhibit the metabolism of
a)      mercaptopurine   b) doxorubicin   c) cisplatin
23)   prodrug of terbutaline is
a)      salmeterol     b) bambuterol    c) zafirlukast
24)   selective COX-Z inhibictor is
a)      ketorolac     b) indomethacin   c) rofecoxib
25)   short acting antidepressant is
a)      meclobemide    b) valproate      c) fluoxetine
26)   famatidine acts as
a)      H1- histamine antagonist      b) H2- histamine antagonist   c) proton –pump inhibitor
27)   Tenoposide is used inthe management of
a)      Acute leukemia       b) vardiac arrhythmia    c) candidiasis
28)   Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is
a)      Selegiline        b) phenelzine       c) venlafaxin
29)   Obligatory anaerobes
a)      Can tolerate oxygen and will die in its presence
b)      Do not tolerate oxygen levels below normal
c)       Can grow in oxygen levels below normal
d)      Can grow in the presence of atmospheric oxygen
30)   A microscopic examination of culture isolated revealed spherical bodies with a smooth outline growing in long chains. Identify the micro organism
a)      Staphylococcus aureus    c) rhizopus stolonifer
b)       streptococcus pyogenes    d) bacillus subtilis
31)   Staphylococcus aureus is used for  the assay of IP
a)      Doxy cycline      b) bleomycin    c) kanamycin   d) carbencillin
32)   In the microbiological assay of bacitracin – IP,  the best organism used is
a)      Staphylococcus aureus    b) micrococcus luteus  
b)      staphylococcus epidermidermidus            d) bacillus pumilus
33)   in the official bioassay of erythromycin the strain used is
a)      bacillus subtilis
b)      micrococcus luteus
c)       salmonella typhi  
d)      Escherichia coli
34)   Varicalla zoster is the causative organism for
a)      Small pox   b) dermatophytosis   c) herpes   d) infectious mononucleosis
35)   R.W.C.is used to to identify the strength of an
a)      Amtibiotic     b) antipyretic  c) antiseptic   d) anti inflammatory
36)   Rideal walker test is performed by using the stain
a)      E. Coli    b) sta[hylococcus niruri   c) streptococcus pyogenes    d) salmonella typhi
37)   The R-w coefficient test is used to evaluate
a)      Antibiotic activity     b) sterility of packaging material c) nature of organism in bacterial infection   d) bacterial activity
38)   The principle structural component of the cell wall in bacteria is made up of
a)      Simple protein     b) peptidoglycan polymer    c) complex polysaccharides    d) glycoprotein
39)   Which one of the following is attached to the equipment heater and furnaces for controlling the noise pollution
a)      Acoustic plenums    b) aerodynamic fan blades  c) enclosures
b)       Inline silencers
40)   Which one of the following is generally not used for water pollution abatement
a)      Biological treatment  b) chemical treatment  c) physical treatment d) thermal treatment
41)   Which one of the following is considered for wastewater abatement for physical treatment
a)      Coagulation   b) oxidation    c) removal of oxygen demand  d) sedimentation
42)   Colloidal matter oils colour and odour are removed by one of the following process
a)      Bacteria    b) coagnlation and flocculation   c) sedimentation   d) ultra filtration
43)   The problem is relatively more complex on handling of effluent of one of the following categories
a)      Gas waste   b) semi solid waste     c) solid waste   d) waste water
44)   Condensed cold water and ambient air are intimately mixed in which one of the following cases
a)      Cooling pounds    b) wet cooling towers    c) dry cooling towers  d) spray pounds
45)   From the following which one is not a membrane process used for the final treatment of effluent
a)      Electrodialysis     b) electrostatic precipitation    c) reverse osmosis d) ultra filtration
46)   Which one of the following is the source of thermal pollution is
a)      Air laden water     c) water stanghter house 
b)      Water from radio – active discharge     d) water in power generation
47)   Which one of the following is the source of water pollutant
a)      Fly ash   b) garbage    c) hydrocarbon    d) processing of chemicals
48)   Which one of the following steps renders the effelenent suitable for further treatment
a)      Adsorption   b) equalization  c) ion exchange    d) sedimentation   
49)   Air pollution is emanated from one of the following equipment
a)      Compressor  b) cyclone separator    c) fluidized bed dryer d) wet scrubber
50)   Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of noise pollution
a)      Deafness    b) descreaning electrical resistances of skin    c) reduction in gastric acidity   d) rhinitis
51)   Lower punch is ……….during compression
a)      Movement  b) removed   c) stationary   d) detached
52)   …………….is a problem during tabletting
a)      Peeling    b) capping   c)  bridging          d)mottling
53)   ……………are used for frictionless ejection of tablets from the die
a)      Disintiegration       b) binders    c) glidents     d) lubricants
54)   …………….are used in direct compaction method of tableting
a)      Dry binder     b) wet binder    c) stareh   d) sugar
55)   Lactose is used as
a)      Lubricant     b) glidenes    c) disintegrants   d) anti –adherents
56)   Enteric coating is done by
a)      PVC   b) ethyl cellulose    c) gelatine    d) glycerine   
57)   In tablet coating sugar coat can be done by
a)      Cane sugar   b) PEG 4000 c) gelatine    d) liquid paraftin
58)   Moist granules are dried at………….. degree centigrade
a)      40   b) 60         c) 90       d) 92        
59)   ………………is removal of material from the tablet surface
a)      Sticking    b) chipping    c) bridging    d) picking  
60)   ………….are suspended in hot air at
a)      Tablet, dryer       c) granules, fluidized  bed dryer
b)      Capsule , fluidized bed dryer    d) some gelatine capsules, fluidised bed dryer
61)   Which type of drug interaction between antacid and H2 – antafonist with ketocenazole
a)      Inhibit absorption    b) increase absorption     c) increase metabolisn   d) inhibit metabolism
62)   All of the following drugs are sugar naclcoside except
a)      Didnosine     b) zalcitabine   c) lamivudine      d) stavudine
63)   One of the following statins is synthetic that inhibits HMG – GOA reductase and has heptanoic acid side chain
a)      Pravastatin    b) mevastatin    c) atorvastatin   d) lovastatin 
64)   Intravenous   immuglobulin  is used is one of the following pathological conditions
a)      Urticaria   b) auto immune thrombocytopenia   c) rheumatoid arthriws   d) none
65)   Which of the following drug is analogue of inosine mono phosphate
a)      Stavutine    b) didanosine   c) lamuvidine   d) zidovudine
66)   Which of the following drug is used as sedative – hypnotic and is glutarimide derivations
a)      Gabapentin   b) progabide   c) glutamic   acid   d) glutecthinide
67)   Which of the followings is active metabolite
a)      Fexophenadine    b) cycloguanic   c) minoxidil sulphate   d) all
68)   Ethyl cyano acetate + guanidine are the starting material for the synthesis of    
a)      Diazoxide   b) hydralazine    c) minoxidil   d) nifedifine
69)   To increase the activity of benzodiazepine 5- phenyl win be substituted by
a)      O- methyl    b) M- methyl   c) M- chloro   d) O- chloro
70)   Select which one of the following physical property is not a rheological property
a)      Body & slip   b) spreadability        c)surface tension  d) viscosity 
71)   You can define rhealogy as
a)      Study particle size      c) study of complex formation   
b)      Study of interfacial phenomenon    d) study of flow properties
72)   Units of kinematic viscosity is designed as
a)      Dynes sec/cm   b) dynes /cm2  c) poise   d) stoke
73)   Plastic flow is generally exhibited by
a)      Gellies     b) lotions    c) collids   d) concentrated solid suspensions
74)   Pseudo plastic flow is generally exhibited by
a)      Viscous pasted     c) gellies   
b)      Solutions of mucilages & guns    d) lotions
75)   Unit of relative viscosity is
a)      Poise    b) centi poise  c)   dynes.sec/cm2   d) it is a dimension less number
76)   Creep test is applied to evaluation the visco elastic properties  of
a)      Suspensions   b) ointmaufs   c) emulsions   d) lotions
77)   Brooke – filed visco meter is an example  of
a)      Rotating spindle viscometer
b)      Rotating sphere viscometer
c)       Cone and plate viscometer
d)      Cup & bob viscometer
 
 
1)      selective H 1 agonist is

 

A) 2-methyl histamine
 b.4-methyl histamine
c. dimaprit
d. impromidine
       79) most of the serotonin in the body its found in
               a.mast cell
b. cardiac cell
 c. enterochromaffin cell
d. liver cell
        80) serotonin :platelets effect
                A) promotes aggregation
                       b.inhibit aggregation                                c.no effect                   d.none
       81) greater than 90% serotonin is located here
                A)platelets           b.raphe nucleas       c. enterochromaffin cells of the GI tract    d. Lung
      82) cardio vascular effect of serotonin
                  a.skeletal muscle vasculature: vasodilation  D.NONE
                  b.reflex bradycardia                c.pulmonary and renalvasculature:vasoconstriction.  
     83)  serotonin :nervous system
                 a.stimulates itch and pain sensory nerve endings
b.activates chemosensitive nerve endings in coronary vessels
                 c.atropine sensitive –bradycardia
d.activates medullary vomiting reflex (5-HT 3
       84) Ondansetron – pharmacology
              a) activates dopamine (Intropin), histamine and adrenergic receptors
              b) very effective for prevention of nausea iand vomiting caused by chemotherapy or surgery
              c) reduces postoperative vomiting in patients following middle ear surgery
d) both b and c
      85) Adverse effects — sumatriptan (Imitrex) 
               a) muscle weakness       b) chest pain         c) dizziness            d) all
    86) Common side effect of first-generation H1 antagonists
               A) tachycardia
B) pulmonary hypertension
C) cholecystitis
D) sedation
E) intraperitoneal fibroplasias
     87)  clinical uses: H2 receptor blockade
             A)peptic ulcer duodenal disease              B) gastric ulcer
            C) Zollinger-Ellison disease              D) all
    88) vasoconstriction : bradykinin
               A .arteriolar vascular smooth muscle constriction
              B .venular smooth muscle constriction
                C .both a and b                    D . none
     89)  receptor sites H1
                 A) endothelium
                  B) smooth muscle
                 C) a and b                   D) gastric mucosa
     90)  The choice of humectants is based on
                (a) Rate of moisture exchange
                (b) Viscosity and texture of preparation     (c) Both     (d) None of the above
        91)   Which of the following is more hygroscopic at low concentration?
                 (a) Sorbitol 70%             (b) Glycerine        (c) Both              (d) None
       92)   Due to which factors, petrolatum is most widely used as a hydrocarbon basic in ointments?
                  (a) Its consistency               (b) Its neutral characteristics   
                  (c) Its ability to spread easily on the skin                 (d) All
        93)   Water number means?
                  (a) Maximum amount of water that can be added to 100 g of a base at given temperature
                   (b) Maximum amount of water that can be added to 10 g of a base at given temperature
                    (c) Maximum amount of water that can be added to 5 g of a base at given temperature
                     (d) All
        94)  Lanolin is which type of base
               (a) Hydrocarbon base         (b) Absorption base            (c) Hydrophilic base      (d) a and b
 
        95)  In pastes, the concentration of insoluble powder substances in
                  (a) 20%-50%                   (b) 50%-100%                (c) 50%-75%                 (d) None
 
       96) In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally?
                   (a) Absorption bases           (b) Water removable bases     (c) Hydrocarbon bases (d) None
 
       97)  In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally?
               (a) Absorption bases          (b) Water removable bases      (c) Hydrocarbon bases (d) None
 
       98) Which of the following fatty acid used in water removable creams as emulsifier
                   (a) Stearic acid           (b) Palmitic acid             (c) a and b                      (d) Lanolin
 
         99)  Most widely used hydrocarbon in semi-solid dosage forms
                (a) Petrolatum           (b) Mineral oil           (c) Both          (d) None of the above
 

       100)   Bacterial spoilage is identified by which of the following morphological characteristics?

A. Encapsulation
B. Endospores
C. Cell aggregation
D. All of these

 

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