1)      Commonly used tetanus vaccine is produced by
a)      Treatment of causative organism with heat or UV light and finally obtaining the toxoid
b)      Sub – culturing the virus at pH 10.4
c)      A artificially generating antibodies to viral glycoproteins
d)     Isolating the antigenicity genes from causative organism
        2)      Rabies antiserum IP is
a)      Freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin
b)      Preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses
c)      Sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin
d)      Sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum of horses
       3)      Which of the following is a valid comparison of live vaccines versus killed inactivated vaccines
a)      Hyper sensitivity reactions are uncommon among inactivated vaccines
b)      Live attenuated vaccines are more effective in children
c)      Live attenuated vaccines are not suitable for pediatric use
d)     Replication of organisms in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of immune system there by requiring a lower dose
       4)      Typhoid vaccine IP is a sterile suspension or a freeze dried solid prepared from
a)salmonella typhimurium                   c) salmonella paratyphi
 b) salmonella typhi                              d) salmonella enteritidis
       5) Among the immunizing agents listed below , one of them is orally administered 
                   a) tetanus toxoid                                    c) polio myelitis vaccines
                   b) rabies vaccines                                   d) mumps virus vaccines
       6) Small pox vaccine contains
                   a) living virus vaccinia                           b) living virvaus of hepatitis
                    c) attenuated staphylococcus            d)  living culture of B.C.G
        7) what is sham test ?
                    a) pyrogen testing                                 b) suitability testing
                    b) both                                                     d) none
  8)  Staph aureus is used  as test organism for bioassay of pencillin because it is
          a) most succeptible by penicillin              b) most resistant to pencillin
           c) moderately affected by penicillin        d) directed by pharmacopocia
  9) Which test detects succeotibility of an individual to diphthenia toxin ?
           a) schick test       b) disk test          c) v-p test            d) precipitin test
10) Small pox vaccine is prepared with
         a) variola  virus        b) vaccinia virus   c) yersinia pestis     d) papilom a virus
11) Kuru is a degeneroctive disease of CNS believed to be caused by
          a) protozoan             b) bacteria         c) prion         d) virus
12) Name the smooth strains of two classical types of vibrio choleral  from which cholera vaccine IP is prepared
               a) EL-tor      b) serogroup 0139       c) inaba and ogawa  d) hikojima    
13) Karaya gum is also called as
                 a) kar gum      b) sterculia             c) acacia          d) cellulae
14) Family of sterculia gum
                    a) sterculiaceae             b) rutaceae      c) leguminase    d) apidae
15) Japanese isinglass is also called as 
             a) kargum   b) tragacanth        c) agar          d) pectin
16) …………. carbohydrate is used for the preparation of bacteriologic culture media

                      a) acacia      b) gvar gum         c) sterculia gum       d) agar 

16) …………. carbohydrate is used for the preparation of bacteriologic culture media
           a) acacia      b) gvar gum         c) sterculia gum       d) agar
17) Biological sources of rice
           a) zea mays linn        b) oryza sativa linn  c) triticum aestivum linn  d) goamineae
18) Chemical constituents  present in starch
            a) amylopectin      b) amylase  c) glucose d) all of the above
19) Anthraquinone  glycosides  of cascara contains
              a) o- glycosides         b) N- glycosides     c) C – glycosides   d) S- glycosides
20) One of the following is also known as staff tree
          a) Brahmi     b)  Amla      c) Benda       d)  Malkangni
21) The botanical source of chitrak is
           a) tinospora cordifolia    b) vitex nigundo    c) plumbago zeylanica
22) chry sopanic acids is a majar constituent of
                a) Chakramadu  b) Nagod   c) shilajit   d) neem
23) one of the following is also known as vendayomc
       a) amla    b) arjuna       c) methi  d) satavari
24) one of the following is considered as bioavailability enhancer
              a) am;a     b) arjuna   c) piper   d) garlic
25) drying is essential  after one of the following units operations
            a) crystallisation  b) evaporation    c) mixing    d) size reduction
26) for fixing the effective drying conditions which processing factors is essential
          a) height    b) humidity    c) pressure    d) height
27) at a given temperature and humidity , if the moisture content , then the following process takes place
          a) absorption    b) adsorption    c) desorption   d) sorption
28) fluidised is not observed
           a) attrition is not observed      b) entire material is continuously exposed to heat source
            c) fluty mass is formed             d) humidity can be increased
29) which one of the following dryer is known as lyophiliser
             a) fluidised  bed layer  b) freeze dryer    c) spray dryer   d) vaccum dryer
30) migration of salts and solutes does not occur in one of the following equipment for drying
           a) freeze dryer    b) spray dryer    c) tray dryer   d) vaccum dryer
31) which one of the following type to product is having equilibrium moisture content (GMC) of practically zero
        a) non – porous and insoluble                     b) non – porous and soluble  
        c) porous and insoluble                                d) porous and soluble
32) which product is not dried by spray dryer ?
    a) bacterial and viral culture     b) fruit juice   c) lactose    d) serum  
33)  hot sports are formed during one of the following periods
      a) constant rate period                           b) first falling period  
      c) initial re adjustment  period              d) second falling period
34) drying process takes long time in one of the following equipment
           a) drum dryer                          b) fluidised bed dryer
           c) spray drayer                         d) tray dryer
35) deficiency disorder of vitamin B1 is
          a) pellagra      b) anaemia       c) beri – ben
36)  vitamin – D is also known as
          a) calciferoc                b) tocopherol           c) retinol
37) permicions anaemia   is due to the deficiency of
           a) vit – B12       b) vit – B9             c) vit – B6
38) which of the following is anti – sterility vitamin
             a) retinol           b) calciferol            c) tocopherol
39) enzyme involved in joining  the DNA fragments is
             a) lyase           b) ligase                c) endonuclease
40) vector with selfreplicating capacity is
             a) cosmids         b) bacteriophage       c) plasmids
41) r DNA product of growth hormone is
                a) humulin       b) humatrope      c) activase
42) the cranial  which innervates towards heart & digestive tract is
               a) olfactory nerve            b) vagus       c) anditory
43) total number of cervical  vertebrae in humans are
              a) 5                               b) 6                       c) 7
44) total no of thosasic vertebrae in humans
             a) 12                         b) 7                   c) 5
45) the bone present in knee is called
             a) tibia   b) patella     c) tarsal
46) bone present in the back of the head is known as
           a) parietal bone    b) temposal bone     c) occipital bone
46)The whole process of conducting a 360 – Degree Feedback process in any Organisation could last about ________.
a.              1.5 to 3 months
b.              3 to 6 months
c.              6 to 9 months
d.             9 to 12 months
47) In a re-engineering programme, when a process changes so does the ________ of the concerned employee.
a.              Designation
b.              Job profile
c.              Qualification
d.             Job experience
48) The process which is continuous and stops only when the organisation ceases to exist
a.              Training
b.              Job evaluation
c.              Hiring
d.             All of the above
49) Union leaders at different levels & at federations are elected on ________
a.              democratic principle
b.              political considerations
c.              employer’s recommendation
d.             seniority basis
50) The following factor would be relatively low if supply of labour is higher than demand.
a.              production
b.              labour cost
c.              wage
d.             all of the above
51) The nation wide consumer councils formed by the Government comprise of representatives of
a.              Cost account and consumer
b.              Various ministries
c.              Manufactures of commerce
d.             All of the above
52) The following is (are) the option(s) while planning for surplus
a.              Reassign the jobs
b.              Redesign the jobs
c.              Reduce work hours
d.             All of the above
53) The following system is simple, less expensive and less time consuming.
a.       Paired comparison
b.      Confidential report system
c.       Ranking
d.      Checklist method
54) The following are the factors which come under ‘ Work planning’ that is component systems of HRD
a.       Contextual analysis
b.      Role analysis
c.       Performance appraisal
d.      All of the above
55) ______ is the simple act of comparison & learning for organisational improvement
a.           Benchmarking
b.  Feedback
c.         Ranking
d.    Job evaluation
56) _______ can be defined as a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of job.
a.       Job description
b.      Job specification
c.       Job profile
d.      None of the above
57) The three types of forecasts are
a.  Economic, employee market, company’s sales expansion
b.         Long, Short, Medium
c.         Production, economic, company’s sales expansion
d.    Production, labor, economic
58) Under point method, factor(s) generally considered are
a.       Skill, effort, Accountability
b.      Skill, job enrichment, accountability
c.       Wage, job enrichment, accountability
d.      Wage effort, accountability
59) HRD process variable include
a.       Role clarity
b.      Work planning
c.       Better communication
d.      All of the above
60) The following is (are) included in salary survey.
a.                   Average salary
b.                  Inflation indicators
c.                   Salary budget averages
d.                  All of the above

 61) Potentiometric titration is used in nonaqueous titration, when
a) colour of the solution is high        b) colour of the solution is low
c) both                                              d) none

62) The stability of KFR can be increased by replacing methanol with?
a) 2-methoxy ethanol                 b) 2-chloro ethanol
c) trifluoro ethanol                      d) all

63) The pH of the KFT should be maintained at
a) 2-3        b) 5-7              c) 12                 d) at any Ph

64) Which of the following can not be titrated by Karl Fischer method?
a) Chromates         b) thiosulphates          c) salt of weak oxyacid    d) all

65) Which one is polydentate
a) ethylene diamine         b) EDTA         c) both             d) none
66) Which one is sequestering agent?
a) salicylaldoxime         b) 8-hydroxy quinolilne        c) EDTA        d) all

67) The complexometric titration where EDTA is used, carried out at basic pH. Why?

a) For the stability of complex formed             b) reaction rate is optimum in basic pH
c) there is less number of side reaction                     d) all

68) Which is used as masking agent for lead in complexometrric titration?
a) Sod. Sulphide        b) oxalate          c) thiocetamide         d) all 

69) Dimercaprol is used as complexing agent for complexion of
a) mercury          b) arsenic           c) lead            d) all

70) Indicator used in complexometric titration is…….
a) erichrome blacl T        b) xylenolorange
c)  mordant black II         d) all

71) In the preparation of the 0.1 (N) perchloric acid amount of acetic anhydride should be optimum. Why?
a) if added more quantity then amine drug may acetylate and causes erroneous result
b) if added less quantity then water may interfere with the titration.
c) formation of acetyl perchlorate can cause explosion        d) all 

72) Perchloric acid  can be standardized by using
a) benzoic acid        b) oxalic acid     c) potassium hydrogen phthalate    d) tartaric acid

73)Theadrenoceptors type present in the heart            (          )
            a.α1   b. α2    c. β1        d.β2
74) The effect of phenylephenephrine  on arteriole  blood vessel                              (          )
a. vasodilation   b.vasoconstriction c. No  effectd.Decrease peripheral  resistance
75) The muscuranic receptor present in the heart    (          )
a.M1b.M2  c.M3  d. Nm
76) The effect of atropine on heart    (          )
a. Decrease conductivityb. Decrease heart rate  c. tachycardia  d. both a & b
77) The drug molecule which acts on  all  β1 β2   β3  receptors  (          )
a. phenyl ephenephrine b. clonidine  c. dobutamine  d. isoprenaline
78) The selective antagonist on β1 receptors    (          )
a. atenolol  b. yohimbine c. prazocin d. doxazocin
79)The selective β–antagonist used in angina, hypertension  ,arrhythmia(          )
a.metoprolol  b. nebivolol  c. propranolol  d. terbutaline
80)Drugs that block  α1, adrenoceptors(          )
a. phenoxybenzamine b. phentolamine  c. both a & b   d.none
81) The  α+β adrenergic blockers(          )
a. Labetalol b.carvedilol c. both a &b  d.none
82) The β1selective drug(          )
a. dobutamine b. salbutamol c.terbutaline  d. amphetamine
83)Ach, methacholine action on M2(          )
a. agonist  b. antagonist  c. tachycardia d. both a & c
84) Action of Digoxin on heart (          )
a. increase contractility b. decrease heart rate c. decrease conductivity  d. none
85) The ability of a substance dissolves in a given solvent system is depends on

(a) Nature and intensity of the forces present in the solute

 (b) Nature and intensity of the forces present in the solvent
(c) Interactions between solute and solvent
(d) All the above
86) Which of the following substances having poor water solubility
(a) Weak electrolytes  (b) Non-polar molecules  (c) Both  (d) None
87) Benzalkonium chloride is categorized as
 (a) Acidic preservative  (b) Neutral preservative
(c) Mercurial preservative   (d) Quaternary ammonium compounds
88) Which of the following is a synthetic sweetener
 (a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Sorbitol  (d) Aspartame
89) To increase the viscosity of liquid, which of the following agents are used
(a) PVP (b) Methyl Cellulose (c) Sodium Carboxy Methyl Cellulose (d) All the above
90) Which of the following one is responsible for sticking?
(a) Excessive moisture  (b) Low moisture   (c) Both    (d) None
91. Which of the following is a water soluble lubricant?
(a) Stearic acid (b) Mineral oil (c) PEG (d) Magnesium stearate
92. Tablets, which are placed between cheek and teeth, are known as
(a) Buccal (b) Sublingual (c) Lozenges (d) Troches
93. Enteric coating is achieved by using
(a) HPMC (b) CMC (c) CAP (d) starch
94. The disintegration time for sugar coated tablets is
(a) 30 minutes    (b) 45 minutes   (c) 60 minutes   (d) 15 minutes
95. Flow rate of granules from the hopper can be improved by adding
 (a) Disintegrant (b) Glidant (c) Binder (d) Lubricant
96. The ingredients mentioned in P-S are used in various stages of sugar coating of tablets. Match them and find out correct answer
1. Seal coating (P) Gelatin
 2. Sub coating (Q) Carnauba wax
3. Syrup coating (R) PEG 4000
 4. Polyshing (S) Cane sugar
(a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q     (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P    (c) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S    (d) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
97. Chewable tablet contains the following base
 (a) Mannitol   (b) Glucose (c) Lactose (d) None
98. Green bone is a source of
(a) Type A Gelatin   (b) Type B Gelatin  (c) Both   (d) None
99. Particle size is determined by
(a) Gas Chromatography    (b) Cascade impactor   (c) Light scatter decay    (d) Both b & c
100. A synthetic sweetening agent which is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose & has no taste is
(a) Saccharin  (b) Aspartame  (c) Cyclamate  (d) Sorbitol

Leave a Reply